[Jan-2026] AAPC-CPC Exam Dumps Pass with Updated 2026 American Academy of Professional Coders: Certified Professional Coder
Free AAPC-CPC Exam Dumps to Pass Exam Easily
NEW QUESTION # 11
A patient opts to replace his semi-rigid penile prosthesis with a multicomponent, inflatable penile prosthesis. What CPT code(s) should the urologist report if this was completed in one encounter?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 54405, 54415-51
- D. 54415, 54405-51
Answer: A
Explanation:
Penile prosthesis procedure codes are based on the type of prosthesis being used. In this scenario, a semi-rigid prosthesis is being replaced by a multicomponent inflatable one. Currently, there are no CPT codes that encompass the removal of one type of prosthesis and insertion of another type. The most common course of action might be to code the removal and insertion separately and amend a multi-procedural modifier on the secondary code. However, CPT 54415 indicates that the prosthesis removed was not replaced by another, which is an inaccurate description of services rendered. In this case, only the insertion (CPT 54405) should be reported because it has the highest RVU value.
NEW QUESTION # 12
A patient relocates after receiving treatment for an arm fracture. The patient schedules an appointment with a new orthopedist to remove the cast. The orthopedic office should report the fracture diagnosis code with the seventh character A to indicate active treatment.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement is false. When a patient is in the healing and/or recovery phase of an injury, the seventh character would be D to indicate that the care is subsequent-whether the provider has treated the patient in the past or not.
NEW QUESTION # 13
Modifier 50 is not an appropriate modifier to append on CPT code 52000.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement is true. In general, modifier 50 is not appended on cystourethroscopies because human anatomy has only one bladder. However, if the descriptor includes "with ureteral catherization," the procedure can be performed tvvice and billed once with modifier 50 because there are two ureters. CPT 52000 does not include this descriptor.
NEW QUESTION # 14
A 45-year-old female patient with urinary incontinence is treated by means of a Burch procedure. The patient is morbidly obese. What CPT and ICD-IO-CM codes should be reported by the surgeon?
- A. 51841, R32
- B. 51840, R32
- C. 51841, R32, E66.8
- D. 51840, R32, E66.8
Answer: C
Explanation:
When choosing betvteen CPT 51840 and 51841, consider that obesity reduces the operative field, increases surgical time, and poses difficulties in surgical technique. It is therefore considered one of several complicating factors to this surgery because it has an abdominal approach.
Additionally, although the obesity is not the reason for the surgical encounter, it nevertheless should be coded due to the impact it has on the procedure.
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which term describes a procedure in which real-time moving images of an organ are displayed on a screen so that a physician can examine its function and/or structure?
- A. Tomography
- B. Magnetic resonance imaging
- C. Fluoroscopy
- D. Computed tomography
Answer: C
Explanation:
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses magnets, radio waves, and a computer to display detailed pictures of the inside of the body. Tomography uses waves of energy to create three- dimensional, computer-generated images of any internal structure. Computed tomography is cross- sectional images of the body obtained by a narrow beam of x-rays that quickly rotates around the body.
NEW QUESTION # 16
A patient undergoes surgery with anesthesia and is arousable with painful stimulation. What is the level of sedation the patient MOST likely received?
- A. General anesthesia
- B. Deep sedation
- C. Minimal sedation
- D. Moderate sedation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Minimal, moderate, and deep sedation all allow the patient to undergo a procedure without pain and without being completely unconscious. If a patient receives minimal sedation, they are responsive after receiving verbal stimulation. Moderate sedation causes a patient to respond only after tactile stimulation. General anesthesia causes the patient to be completely unarousable, even with painful stimulation.
NEW QUESTION # 17
A 69-year-old patient with a medical history of diabetes is evaluated in the emergency room for a urinary tract infection. After performing a medically appropriate history and exam, the physician prescribes 100 mg of Macrobid every 12 hours and admits the patient to observation status to monitor for sepsis. After seeing an improvement in symptoms, the physician discharges the patient the following day. What CPT and ICD-IO-CM code(s) should be reported for the entirety of the patient's stay?
- A. 99221, 99238, N39.O, Ell.9
- B. 99284, 99238, Ell.69, N39.O
- C. 99222, 99238, N39.O
- D. 99234, N39.O, 397.89
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a patient is admitted into observation status from the emergency room, only the observation code is reported for that day. When observation extends past the initial date of service, the initial treatment would be reported with CPT codes 99221-99223. In this scenario, the appropriate level of service would be 99221, based on the moderate level of decision-making.
which can be ascertained by the number and complexity of problems addressed and the risk of complications and/or morbidity or mortality of patient management. Discharge from observation on a separate date is reported with CPT codes 99238-99239.
Because the diabetes is documented and is a coexisting chronic condition during the time of the encounter, it should follow the reason for admission. Due to a lack of specificity in the diabetes diagnosis, a causal relationship with a UTI is not presumed, and Ell.69 should not be coded.
NEW QUESTION # 18
In which scenario would the modifier 53 be appended?
- A. The surgeon decides to terminate a routine colonoscopy when the patient becomeshypertensive before receiving anesthesia in the outpatient procedure room.
- B. A surgeon decides to stop a gallbladder removal procedure in the hospital operating roomafter the patient has extensive bleeding at the incision site.
- C. A patient receives an x-ray of one femur when the doctor ordered bilateral views.
- D. An IUD removal is not completed because the patient reports severe pain when thespeculum is inserted.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Modifier 53 is used to indicate that a procedure was terminated by the provider after anesthesia was given due to extenuating circumstances that affected the health of the patient.
Although option B is similar, the procedure that was discontinued was done so prior to anesthesia in the outpatient setting, in which case modifier 73 would be appended.
NEW QUESTION # 19
What must the documentation for a consultation include?
- A. Documentation of assumption of care, who requested the consultation, and the consultingproviders, professional opinion
- B. Which family member prompted the consultation, a written report ofthe physical findings/recommendations, and the time spent discussing the recommended treatment plan
- C. Who requested the consultation, the consulting providers, professional opinion, and awritten report that is provided to the referring physician
- D. The reason for the consultation, the time spent discussing the recommended treatmentplan, and a medical decision-making of moderate complexity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Per CPT guidelines, the Office of Inspector General, and Medicare, a consultation must include who requested the consultation, the consulting provider's professional opinion, and a written report of the findings, which is provided to the referring physician. Time can be used to select the level of E/M; however, it is not required if all three components of the documentation are met (history, exam, and medical decision-making). Additionally, once the provider assumes care, a subsequent code appropriate for that place of service would be reported (e.g., 99211-99215) and not a consultation code.
NEW QUESTION # 20
A provider places a catheter on the right side of the heart chamber via an incision made on the lower left side of the patient's chest while performing a transcatheter mitral valve replacement. How should this encounter be coded?
- A. 0484T, 93451-59
- B. 0
- C. 0484T
- D. 0483T, 93451
Answer: C
Explanation:
0484T describes a transcatheter mitral valve replacement via a thoracic approach. CPT code
33430 describes a mitral valve replacement in which cardiopulmonary bypass is initiated. CPT code
0483T describes a transcatheter mitral valve replacement with a percutaneous approach: however, the documentation identifies a transthoracic incision. Catheterization is bundled into the procedure and is not separately identifiable unless the provider documents extenuating circumstances (i.e. no prior study available, inadequate visualization, etc.).
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which option would best fall under a level II HCPC code?
- A. A malignant neoplasm
- B. Radiation treatment management
- C. Advanced life support
- D. Diagnostic colonoscopy
Answer: C
Explanation:
A level II HCPC code describes medical devices, supplies, medication, and/or other services that a provider and/or entity used during a service provided to a patient. Advanced life support (ALS) fits this description because it is a set of life-saving protocols administered in transit.
Radiation treatment management and a diagnostic colonoscopy describe a level I HCPC code, otherwise known as a CPT code. If the patient was asymptomatic and the colonoscopy was for screening purposes only, a level II HCPC code could be assigned. However, a diagnostic procedure implies a past medical/family history that puts the patient at risk and/or symptoms that warrant the procedure. A malignant neoplasm describes an ICD-IO-CM code because it is a diagnosis.
NEW QUESTION # 22
An 88-year-old patient with Medicare comes in for her yearly flu shot. After receiving a 0.5 mL single shot dose of preservative-free Alfuria intramuscularly, the provider observes the patient for 15 minutes to monitor any adverse reactions. How should the provider code for this encounter?
- A. 96372, 90686 Z23
- B. 90471, 90656, Z23
- C. 99211-25, 90471, 90656, Z23, Z03.89
- D. G0008, 90656, Z23
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient has Medicare insurance and therefore requires the use of an HCPC code (G0008) in place of a CPT intramuscular injection code. The use of an E/M code in answer B is not warranted because the provider only administered services related to the vaccination. The appropriate diagnosis code for any vaccination would be Z23.
NEW QUESTION # 23
A complete pulmonary function test using a body plethysmograph is performed on a patient in conjunction with spirometry. After reviewing the results, a provider suspects the presence of an obstructive disease and administers a bronchodilating medicine just prior to repeating the test to reevaluate the expiratory flow rate. Which code(s) should be reported?
- A. 94726, 94060
- B. 94726, 94060-51
- C. 99212-25, 94726, 94060-76
- D. 99212-25, 94726,94010-51, 94060-51
Answer: A
Explanation:
Answers A and B can be eliminated because the complete pulmonary function test includes interpretation of the test results: therefore, the review ofthis would not be considered separately identifiable. The CPT code 94060 includes spirometry before and after a bronchodilator has been administered, so a separate spirometry code (94010) would be inappropriate. Last, a modifier is not needed because the procedures are routinely done in conjunction with each other.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which form is used to make a patient aware of the potential monetary liability they will have if their procedure is not likely to be covered by Medicare?
- A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Release
- B. Advance Beneficiary Notice
- C. Payment Plan Contract
- D. National Coverage Determination
Answer: B
Explanation:
National Coverage Determination is a reference guide for physicians to determine which services are covered by Medicare. The HIPAA Release is a form that must be signed by the patient prior to release of medical records and can be revoked at any time. The HIPAA Privacy Rule is in place to protect the patien& health information.
NEW QUESTION # 25
A patient is in labor with plans to deliver vaginally. An epidural is administered at 17:30. After several hours of pushing, the obstetrician determines that the cervix is swollen, and the baby must be delivered via a c-section. The patient consents, the baby is delivered, and both are discharged to the recovery room at 22:15. What CPT code(s) should the anesthesiologist report?
- A. 01967, 01968
- B. 01967, 01968, 99140
- C. 01967-23, 01968
- D. 01967-23, 01968, 99140
Answer: C
Explanation:
For a planned vaginal delivery with the use of an epidural, followed by a Cesarean delivery, the correct CPT codes are 10967 followed by add-on code 01968. CPT code 99140 is an add-on code portraying that the procedure was an emergency and that the patient and/or baby has a significant increase in the threat to life. The documentation gives no indication that these services were emergent Modifier 23 is reported for unusual anesthesia services. This would include-but is not limited to-the use of general anesthesia for a procedure that usually requires only a local anesthetic or none and/or a procedure extending more than 4 hours. In this case, the total procedure time was 4.75 hours, and modifier 23 is appended on the primary procedure code only.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Code the following note:
A male patient with a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented to the emergency room 3 days ago with tachycardia and shortness of breath. He was intubated and admitted with acute respiratory failure (ARE) due to an acute exacerbation of COPD. Upon follow-up with the patient today, dark sputum was noted in the intubation tube, and testing confirmed aspiration pneumoni a. I will start him on 875 mg of amoxicillin every 12 hours and follow up tomorrow.
- A. 99233, 169.0
- B. 99232, 196.00, 144.1, 169.0
- C. 99232, 144.1, 196.00, 169.0, ROO.O
- D. 99231, 169.0, 196.00, 144.1
Answer: B
Explanation:
This documentation supports a decision-making of moderate complexity (number and complexity of problems addressed: high; amount and/or complexity of data to be reviewed and analyzed: minimal: diagnostic procedures and management examples: moderate), making CPT
99232 the most accurate description of services rendered. Regarding selection and sequencing of the diagnoses, always select the reason for the admission as the primary diagnosis code. In this case, the patient was admitted for ARF 096.00). The secondary code would be the underlying COPD
044.1), and conditions arising after admission would be tertiary and so forth. Tachycardia would not be reported because it is a symptom of ARF and symptoms are not reportable when the underlying disease has been confirmed.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A patient has an elective bilateral vasectomy under regional anesthesi
a. The procedure is completed within 15 minutes. What CPT and ICD-IO-CM code(s) should the provider report?
- A. 55250, Z30.2
- B. 55250, 89321, Z30.8
- C. 55250, 00921, Z30.2
- D. 55250-50, Z30.8
Answer: A
Explanation:
A vasectomy includes a sperm analysis and regional anesthesia and should not be unbundled for higher reimbursement. A vasectomy includes both unilateral and bilateral sides, so modifier 50 should never be appended. In this circumstance, CPT 55250 should be billed as a standalone procedure to encompass all services delivered. Additionally, although the documentation does not give a specific diagnosis, it can be inferred from "elective" that the procedure is not to treat an underlying illness or injury. Therefore, Z30.2 (encounter for sterilization) is the evident diagnosis for this type of procedure because the patient is being sterilized. Z30.8 (encounter for other contraceptive management) can be used for an encounter discussing post vasectomy sperm count.
NEW QUESTION # 28
During surgery to remove a malignant melanoma from the intestinal tract, one frozen section is sent for pathological consultation to confirm an adequate excision of the margins. A second specimen is also sent, which requires frozen sections on two tissue blocks. What CPT code(s) should the pathologist report?
- A. 88331, 88331, 88332
- B. 88329, 88331, 88332, 88332
- C. 88331, 88332, 88332
- D. 88331, 88332
Answer: A
Explanation:
CPT code 88331 is used to report only a single specimen. In this scenario, there are Evo separate specimens being sent to the pathologist. The first specimen, with one frozen section, is reported with CPT code 88331. The second specimen has tv.ro tissue blocks with frozen sections, thus represented by coding 88331 for the first tissue block, followed by 88332 for the additional tissue block CPT code 88329 is inclusive to 88331 and should not be reported separately.
NEW QUESTION # 29
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